1) Ch. 16, v. 1: "Va'yikach Korach" - The M.R. 18:3 says that Korach came to Moshe with the following question: "You have taught us that one needs a mezuzoh on the door posts of his home. If the home is filled with Torah Scrolls, does the door post still require a mezuzoh?" Moshe responded in the affirmative. At this point Korach retorted, "If a Torah Scroll which contains 275 parshios does not exempt the home from a mezuzoh, how can a mezuzoh which contains but ONE PARSHA satisfy this requirement?" We can easily see a parallel to his complaint that since the whole nation is holy, why is there a need for a leader.
What is most interesting to note is that the medrash quotes Korach as saying that a mezuzoh contains but ONE PARSHA. The Medrash Tanchuma and the Yalkut Shimoni both have a text which reads "TWO PARSHIOS," and the RSha"Sh adjusts the text in the M.R. to conform with these two medroshim. However, the original text found in all printings of the M.R. is "ONE PARSHA." I’m sure than you’ve seen a mezuzah script and noticed that there are two paragraphs. How are we to explain this medrash?
2) Ch. 16, v. 1: "Va'yikach Korach" – When did this uprising take place in relation to other desert incidents?
3) Ch. 16, v. 22: "Ho’ish echod yecheto v'al kol ho'eidoh tiktzofe" – Can it be that one person will sin and You will be angered on the whole congregation – Ramban cites Rabbeinu Chananeil who explains that Moshe said these words because he misunderstood Hashem, thinking that “the whole congregation” meant the whole Jewish nation, and Hashem responded to him that “kol ho’eidoh” only referred to the cohorts of Korach. The Raamban resoundingly disagrees with this interpretation because it is incomprehensible to say that Moshe, who received such clear messages of prophecy from Hashem, would misunderstand. He therefore explains these words differently. How can we answer the Ramban’s question and have a good understanding of Rabbeinu Chananeil’s position?
4) Ch. 17, v. 5: "V'lo yi'h'yeh ch'Korach v'chaadoso" – And - he shall not/there will not - be as Korach and his group – Which of these two translations is correct? Is this an exhortation or a statement of fact?
5) Ch. 17, v. 7: "Va'y'hi b'hiko'heil ho'eidoh al Moshe v'al Aharon" – And is was when all the group assembled upon Moshe and Aharon – Targum Yonoson ben Uziel writes that they assembled to kill Moshe and Aharon. How does he derive this from the words of our verse? We similarly find "va'yikohalu al Moshe v'al Aharon" in Bmidbar 20:2 and Targum Yonoson ben Uziel does not write the same there.